Jul. 8th, 2004

wildernesscat: (Default)
Some languages I'm familiar with have very different usage for the definite article. This never fails to puzzle me. For example, take the sentence "I like ice cream".

In English: "I like ice cream"
In Hebrew: "אני אוהב גלידה" (ani ohev glida)
In Arabic: "be7ebb il-buza" ('7' standing for a fricative 'h' sound)
In French: "j'aime la glace"

Note that English and Hebrew don't use any article before "ice cream", while French and Arabic use the definite articles "la" and "il" accordingly. I don't see what they're for. "Ice cream" is a generic term in this context, isn't it?

Update: An interesting discussion develops after a cross-post to [livejournal.com profile] linguists.

Profile

wildernesscat: (Default)
Danny Dorfman

March 2018

S M T W T F S
    123
4 5678910
11121314151617
18192021 222324
25262728293031

Style Credit

Page generated Dec. 15th, 2025 04:23 am
Powered by Dreamwidth Studios

Expand Cut Tags

No cut tags

Most Popular Tags